The correct answer is option A because 'Jhamal' is a major metrical stanza of poetry in Rajasthani literature, in which the entire couplet is read first and then the fourth (last) stanza of the couplet is repeated in the fifth stanza. In Dingal literature, this verse has been especially used for the expansion of ritual poetry and moral couplets. Option B 'Jhulana' is a very popular matrik stanza which consists of 24 varnas or matras and ends with 'Yati' (e.g. Amarsingh Rathod ra Jhulana). Option C 'Veli' is called that poetic genre in which the lyrical description of the fame, lineage and bravery of kings or gods increases like 'Vel', the best example of which is 'Veli Krisan Rukmani Ri' written by Prithviraj Rathod. Option D 'Rupaka' is a poetic arrangement based on the entire life character of a historical great man or king, such as Gajaguna Rupaka. Therefore, the specific structural definition given expresses only the Jhamal stanza.

The correct answer is option B because the correct chronological order of all these saints is Jambhoji (1451 AD) → Jasnathji (1482 AD) → Mirabai (1498 AD) → Dadudayal (1544 AD). Saint Jambhoji, the founder of the Vishnoi sect, was born in Pipasar (Nagaur) on 1451 AD (Bhadrapada Krishna Ashtami). Saint Jasnathji, the founder of Jasnathi sect, was born in 1482 AD in Katariasar (Bikaner) to Hamirji Jat. Meerabai, the prominent saint poet of Krishnabhakti branch, was born in 1498 AD in the house of Ratansingh Rathod in Kudki village (Pali). Saint Dadudayal, the founder of Dadu sect, was born in 1544 AD in Ahmedabad (Gujarat) and later came to Rajasthan. Thus, in the ascending order of birth year, first comes Jambhoji (A), then Jasnathji (B), then Mirabai (D) and finally Dadudayal (C), which makes the correct code A → B → D → C.

The correct answer is option B because in Dravidian style temples, there is not a curvilinear shikhara over the sanctum sanctorum, but a 'vimana' rising in the shape of a stepped pyramid. The curvilinear shikhara is the most prominent feature of the North Indian 'Nagar style' temples, in which the shikhara gradually curves inwards towards the top. The main features of Dravidian temple architecture include boundary walls, huge ornate gateways (gopurams), pyramidal multi-storeyed vimana over the sanctum, pavilions supported on pillars and the mandatory presence of pushkarini (kalyani or pond) for water harvesting within the complex. Temples built by Chola, Pallava and Pandya rulers such as the Brihadeeswara temple at Thanjavur are excellent examples of Dravidian style. Hence, statement B is completely false from technical and architectural point of view.

The correct answer is option A because Assertion (A) is completely true but Reason (R) is false. According to NCERT (History, Theme-8), there was abundant availability of silver rupees and monetary stability in the Mughal Empire during the 16th to 18th centuries, which is evidenced by the travelogue of the Italian traveler Giovanni Carreri. Reason (R) is wrong because silver did not come 'from Asia' to pay for goods exported from India, but was imported into Asia and India through trade from the New World (America) and Europe. In exchange for cotton textiles, spices and indigo from India, European trading companies brought silver coins and bullion to India on a large scale. Since the source of silver was European and American mines and not Asia, the reason written as 'silver came from Asia' is historically and factually incorrect.

The correct answer is option A because 'Walar dance' performed by the Garasia tribe in Sirohi district of Rajasthan is performed without any musical instrument at a very slow and dignified pace with only rhythmic claps, footsteps and singing. It is also called 'Ghoomar' of Garasia tribe, in which men and women stand in two semicircles and conduct the dance with umbrellas or swords. On the contrary, option B 'Ger' is a famous folk dance of Mewar and Barmer in which the use of Dhol, Bankia and Thali is mandatory. Option C 'Dandiya' is a famous folk dance of Marwar in which Nagara, Shehnai and Dhol are played. Option D 'Gindar' is a circular dance performed by men on the beat of drums and chang on the occasion of Holi in Shekhawati region. Therefore, the traditional dance without musical instruments is only Walar.

The correct answer is option A because 'Mahabalidani Pannadhay Panorama' has been established not in Chittauri Kheda (Chittorgarh) but in Kameri (Devgarh, Rajsamand) and Pandoli (Chittorgarh), whereas 'Sant Shiromani Raidas Panorama' is built in Chittorigh Kheda. According to the official data of Rajasthan Tourism Development Corporation and Heritage Promotion Authority, Sant Dhanna Bhagat Panorama is located in Dhuanklan, Tonk, which is completely compatible. A panorama of Thakur Kushal Singh and the freedom struggle of 1857 has been developed at Auwa in Pali district. A panorama of Guru Gobind Singh Ji has been installed in Naraina, Jaipur. Since in option B, Chittauri Kheda has been given in front of Pannadhay, which is the shrine and panorama place of Saint Raidas, hence this pair is incongruous.

The correct answer is option C because in the ancient Indian and Rajasthani land revenue system, when the state collected revenue from farmers in the form of cash currency (gold or silver coins) in place of produce, it was called 'Hiranya' or 'Hiranyak'. On the contrary, when the tax was taken in the form of grain or crop, it was called 'Bhag' or 'Meya'. Option A 'Uparikar' was a type of additional or cess which was imposed on temporary cultivators other than permanent cultivators. Option B 'Duty' was the tax or customs duty imposed on traded goods. Option D 'Pranaya' was an optional or compulsory emergency tax imposed by the state on the subjects in times of crisis during the Maurya and Gupta periods. Hence the land revenue collected in the form of currency was clearly called Hiranyak.

The correct answer is option D because the correct chronology of these historical events is A → C → B → D. The Simon Commission was formally appointed by the British Government on 8 November 1927 under the chairmanship of John Simon. After this, the great revolutionary Chandrashekhar Azad of Hindustan Socialist Republican Association (HSRA) attained martyrdom on 27 February 1931 during a police encounter in Alfred Park, Allahabad. Martyrs Bhagat Singh, Sukhdev and Rajguru were hanged in Lahore Central Jail on 23 March 1931 under the Lahore Conspiracy Case. Surya Sen (Masterda), the mastermind of the Chittagong armory raid, was hanged by the British on 12 January 1934 in Medinipur/Chittagong jail. Hence, the correct chronology according to year and month is (A: 1927) → (C: February 1931) → (B: March 1931) → (D: 1934).

The correct answer is option D because Pot, Timaniya and Champakali are traditional ornaments worn on the neck and chest by women in Rajasthan, while Chhada is an ornament worn on the leg. 'Pot' is a rosary made by stringing small glass beads which is worn around the neck. 'Timaniya' is a heavy necklace made of three gold strips which Rajasthani women wear on festivals. 'Champakali' is a very beautiful necklace made of gold or silver threads in the shape of Champa flower buds. In contrast, 'chhada' (or rods) is a bangle-like ornament made of solid silver which women wear near the ankles of the feet. Therefore only A, C and D are neck ornaments and the rod being a foot ornament is out of this group.

The correct answer is option C because both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are historically true and the reason gives the correct explanation of the Assertion. The Narendra Mandal was formally established at the Red Fort in Delhi on 8 February 1921 by a royal decree of Emperor George V based on the recommendations of the Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms (Government of India Act, 1919). Its basic objective was to provide an official consultative platform to the native monarchs under British supremacy so that the loyalty and organization of the monarchs could be used to protect British interests against the rapidly emerging nationalist and non-cooperation movements in India. Maharaja Ganga Singh of Bikaner was chosen as its first Chancellor, who favored the autonomy of the princely states. Therefore, organizing the princely states under the pressure of political activities was the real background of its formation.

The correct answer is option A because statements A and B are true, while statement C is false. Achalgarh Fort located in Mount Abu (Sirohi) was originally constructed by the Parmar dynasty rulers in the 9th century. In 1452 AD, Maharana Kumbha of Mewar got this fort rebuilt from the Sultans of Gujarat to ensure border security and expanded the Kumbhaswamy temple and other security ramparts in it. Statement C is incorrect because 'Gol Jhalra' and 'Bada Jhalra' (including Nana Saheb ka Jhalra and Ibrahim ka Jhalra) are famous reservoirs located in Taragarh Fort of Ajmer and not in Achalgarh. The major reservoirs located in the Achalgarh fort complex are Mandakini Kund, Sawan-Bhadon Lake and Kapoor Sagar. Therefore, in the context of Achalgarh, only the original construction during the Parmar period and the reconstruction of Kumbha are the correct facts.

The correct answer is option C because the correct chronological order of these wars is First Anglo-Maratha War (1775-1782) → Second Anglo-Mysore War (1780-1784) → Third Anglo-Mysore War (1790-1792) → Second Anglo-Maratha War (1803-1805). The First Anglo-Maratha War began in 1775 after the Treaty of Surat and ended in 1782 with the Treaty of Salbai. The Second Anglo-Mysore War began in 1780 under the leadership of Hyder Ali and ended with the Treaty of Mangalore in 1784. The Third Anglo-Mysore War lasted from 1790 to 1792 between Tipu Sultan and Cornwallis, which ended with the Treaty of Srirangapatna. The Second Anglo-Maratha War was fought between 1803 and 1805 after the Treaty of Bassein of 1802. Hence the correct ascending order according to years is 1775 (A) → 1780 (B) → 1790 (C) → 1803 (D).

The correct answer is option A because both statements A and C are incorrect (false), while the question asks to identify the incorrect statements. Statement A is incorrect because Phad painting is not produced on handmade paper, but on thick cotton khadi/rezi cloth using glue and natural botanical and mineral colours. Statement C is also wrong because there is no mandatory rule of giving red color to goddesses and blue color to gods in Phad; In this, red color symbolizes bravery, yellow symbolizes jewellery, green symbolizes nature and vermillion symbolizes divinity. Statement B is completely correct because Joshi Chitere of Bhilwara makes Phad for the Bhopas, who recite Pabuji's Phad on Ravanahatha and Devnarayanji's Phad on Jantar instrument. Statement D is also correct because under Hierarchical Scaling in Phad, the stature of the main hero deity is made much bigger than other characters.

The correct answer is option A because the father of 'Jaipur Foot' and renowned orthopedic specialist, Dr. P.K. Sethi (Pramod Karan Sethi) received only the Ramon Magsaysay Award and Dr. B.C. Roy had received national awards. He was awarded the prestigious 'Ramon Magsaysay Award' in the category of community leadership for the rehabilitation of amputees and manufacturing of accessible prostheses in 1981. Apart from this, he was awarded the country's highest medical honor 'Dr.' by the Indian Medical Council in 1989. B.C. Roy Award was given. The Government of India honored him with 'Padma Shri' in the year 1981, but he was never decorated with Padma Bhushan or Padma Vibhushan. Hence, among the honors given in the options, only B and C fall in the category of awards received by them.

The correct answer is option B because only statement A is considered true, while both B and C are factually false. The States Reorganization Act came into effect throughout the country from 1 November 1956, which was passed by the Parliament to implement the recommendations of the Fazal Ali Commission. Statement B is incorrect because originally 14 states and 6 Union Territories (UTs) were created under this Act, and not 7 Union Territories. Statement C is also completely incorrect because 'Andhra Pradesh' was formed by merging the Telugu-speaking Telangana region of the princely state of Hyderabad with Andhra State, while the Marathi-speaking Marathwada region of Hyderabad was merged into Bombay State (present-day Maharashtra). Therefore, due to the provision of 14 states and 6 union territories and the merger of Telangana with Andhra, only statement A is a valid option.

The correct answer is option A because 'Integrated Resource Recovery Park' (E-Waste and Recycling Park) has been established not in Chittorgarh, but in Tholai (Jammuvaramgarh, Jaipur). This park has been established in Tholai by Rajasthan State Pollution Control Board and RIICO to promote waste management and waste recycling. Option B is completely correct because RIICO has developed a dedicated park for the manufacturing of solar cells and solar panels in Kankani Industrial Area (Jodhpur). Option C is also correct because Handicraft and Furniture Cluster Park is functioning near Boranada in Jodhpur. Option D is correct because Stone Park has been developed in Gundi-Fatehpur area of ​​Kota district for processing and promotion of Kota stone. Hence, the incongruent pair is only option A.

The correct answer is option A because the correct order from north to south based on latitudinal position is Zollern (Scandinavia) → Harz (Northern Germany) → Black Forest (South-West Germany) → Dinaric Alps (Balkan Peninsula). The Kjølen Mountains, located at about 63° to 68° north latitude on the border of Norway and Sweden, are the northernmost. The Harz Mountains are located in the northern part of Germany at about 51.7° north latitude. The Black Forest is a block mountain located in the southern part of Germany, east of the Rhine River valley at approximately 48° north latitude. The Dinaric Alps extend parallel to the Adriatic Sea in the Balkan region of south-eastern Europe at approximately 42° to 45° north latitude. Hence the correct sequence from north to south is B → C → A → D.

The correct answer is option A because both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and the reason correctly explains the low productivity of pulses. India, despite being the largest producer and consumer of pulses in the world, lags far behind the global average in terms of per hectare productivity (about 700-800 kg/hectare). The main reason for this is that pulses are still cultivated on more than 80 percent rain-fed and marginal (less fertile) lands. Lack of improved disease-resistant seeds, lack of irrigation facilities, pest infestation, extreme temperatures and structural weaknesses in post-harvest storage and marketing do not allow productivity to increase. Since these technical, institutional and seasonal risks directly limit the yield, both the assertion and the reason are correct and relevant.

The correct answer is option D because the total area of ​​the National Desert National Park is 3162 square kilometers, which is the largest protected area in Rajasthan. It is spread over an area of ​​1900 sq km in Jaisalmer district and 1262 sq km in Barmer district and is the main natural habitat of the state bird Godavan (Great Indian Bustard) and the center of Akal Wood Fossil Park. In comparison, the area of ​​option A 'Kailadevi Sanctuary' (Karauli) is approximately 676.82 square km. Option B 'Darra Sanctuary' (Mukundara Hills) has an area of ​​approximately 274 sq km. Option C 'Phulwari ki Naal' (Udaipur) has an area of ​​approximately 511.41 sq km. Hence, it is clear that in terms of area, Desert National Park is very huge and occupies the top position among them.

The correct answer is option A because according to the landmark Paris Agreement of 2015 and the special report of the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC), it has been declared mandatory to achieve net-zero greenhouse gas emissions globally by the middle of the century i.e. by 2050 to limit the global temperature rise to within 1.5°C. The long-term objective of the Paris Agreement is to keep temperature rise well below 2°C compared to pre-industrial levels and make serious efforts to limit it to 1.5°C. For this, a framework has been set to reduce global carbon emissions by 45% by 2030 and establish balance (net zero) by 2050. Although different countries have set different targets according to their national circumstances (eg India has set 2070 and China has set 2060), the global collective target of the agreement is 2050.

The correct answer is option C because Buckingham Canal (Kakinada to Puducherry extension) is an integral part of National Waterway-4 (NW-4) and not National Waterway-5. National Waterway-4 connects the Buckingham Canal Network with Krishna and Godavari rivers in Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu and Puducherry with a total length of about 1078 km. In contrast, National Waterway-5 (NW-5) is located in Odisha and West Bengal, with a total length of 623 km. NW-5 includes the Talcher-Dhamra section of the Brahmani River, the Goenkhali to Charbatia section of the East Coast Canal, the Charbatia-Dhamra section of the Matai River and the rivers of the Mahanadi delta. Hence, since the Buckingham Canal is connected to NW-4, it is not connected to NW-5.

The correct answer is option D because statements A and B are true, while statement C is false. Dholpur Lift Irrigation Project is a large irrigation cum drinking water project to provide irrigation facility to drought affected areas of Dholpur district and drinking water supply to villages by lifting the surplus water of Chambal river. Under the revised DPR of this project, a target has been set to irrigate about 39,980 hectares of cultivable command area (CCA) of Rajkheda and Dholpur tehsil of the district through canal system and sprinkler irrigation. Statement C is incorrect because provision was made to install a grid-connected solar power plant of 30 MW capacity, not 10 MW, to meet the power requirements of the project and to run the pumping station. Hence, on the basis of technical specification, only A and B are true statements.

The correct answer is option D because out of these four rivers, three rivers (Mantha, Khandela and Kantli) are part of the internal water drainage system, while Sipu river is a river of the Arabian Sea drainage system. Mantha (Mendha) river originates from Manoharpur in Jaipur and falls into Sambhar Lake via Nagaur. Khandela river originates from Sikar hills and merges into Sambhar Lake. Kantli river originates from the Khandela hills of Sikar and divides Jhunjhunu into two parts and gets absorbed in the sand near the Churu border. These three rivers do not reach any sea, hence are rivers of internal drainage. On the contrary, the 'Sipu' river originates from Sirohi district and joins the western Banas river in Gujarat, which further discharges into the Rann of Kutch (Arabian Sea system). Hence only three rivers represent the internal drainage system.

The correct answer is option B because the Depsang Plain is a strategic plateau plain located at an altitude of more than 5,000 meters in the north-eastern region of the Union Territory of Ladakh in the northern part of India (east of the Karakoram range). This area is located very close to the Line of Actual Control (LAC) and is considered extremely important for the security of the Daulat Beg Oldi (DBO) airstrip and the strategic Darbuk-Shyok-DBO (DSDBO) road. The Depsang Y-Junction area was highly discussed during the 2020 India-China military standoff. Since Ladakh is located in the Himalayan region in the far north of the country, geographically it completely comes under 'Northern India'. The remaining options are completely irrelevant as they belong to South, North-East or Central India.

The correct answer is option D because only statement A is correct, while both B and C are false. The Rajasthan Forestry and Biodiversity Development Project (RFBDP) is being implemented with 70:30 financial support from the French development agency 'Agence Façaise de Development' (AFD) and the Government of Rajasthan. Statement B is incorrect because the official implementation period of this eight-year project is scheduled from 2023-24 to 2030-31 (8 years), and not 2029-30. Statement C is also incorrect because the project is implemented in only 13 districts of Rajasthan (Alwar, Baran, Bhilwara, Bharatpur, Bundi, Dausa, Dholpur, Jaipur, Jhalawar, Karauli, Kota, Sawai Madhopur and Tonk); 23 So there are Divisional Management Units (DMUs) formed under it, not districts. Hence, on the basis of both administrative and technical data only statement A proves to be true.

The correct answer is option A because according to the official data of 2011 census, the urban population of a total of 5 districts of Rajasthan was recorded to be less than 10 percent of their total district population. These five districts, in the order of their lowest urban percentage, are as follows: 1. Dungarpur (only 6.39%), 2. Barmer (6.98%), 3. Banswara (7.10%), 4. Pratapgarh (8.27%), and 5. Jalore (8.30%). The proportion of urban population in all the remaining districts of the state has been more than 10%, while the overall average urbanization of the state was 24.87%. Since most of the population in these five southern and western frontier districts is rural, tribal and agriculture-based, the total number of districts with less than 10% urban population is exactly 5 (five).

The correct answer is option C because out of the four given mining areas, three areas (Dakan Kotada, Salopet and Birmania) are deposits of rock phosphate, while Barodia is a mining area of ​​manganese. Dakan Kotda is the major rock phosphate field located in Udaipur district (along with Jhamarkotda, Mattoon and Kanpur). Salopet is a major rock phosphate/phosphorite mining block in Banswara district. Birmania is a famous sedimentary rock phosphate field under the Lathi and Fatehgarh ranges in Jaisalmer district. On the contrary 'Barodiya' is a famous mine of manganese ore situated in Banswara district (along with Leelawani, Talwara, Kasla and Timmamahuri). Since Barodia does not belong to rock phosphate but to the metallic mineral manganese, the correct number of rock phosphate producing areas is three.

The correct answer is option C because according to the laws of climatology in Rajasthan, where the average annual rainfall is highest, the variation (coefficient of variability) of rainfall is found to be the lowest. Mount Abu situated in Sirohi district is the highest rainfall place of the state (about 150 cm) and due to the high average rainfall in the entire Sirohi district, the year-to-year variation in monsoon rainfall is minimal (about 20-25%). In contrast, in the western arid districts like Jaisalmer, rainfall uncertainty and variability is highest (more than 50%) in the state. Compared to Hanumangarh and Bharatpur, Sirohi has more stable rainfall due to high humidity and monsoon continuity. Hence, among the given options, the rainfall variation in Sirohi is least recorded.

The correct answer is option D because according to geological chronology, the correct order of these landforms from oldest to newest is Aravalli System → Baap Boulders → Deccan Trap → Alluvial and aeolian soils. The Aravalli mountain range is the world's oldest folded mountain range of the Pre-Cambrian era (about 2500 to 4500 million years ago). The Baap Boulders (glacial deposits of Jodhpur/Phalodi) are believed to be of Carboniferous to Permian age (about 300 million years ago). The Deccan Traps (basaltic lava of the Hadoti Plateau) were formed by volcanic eruptions during the Cretaceous period of the Mesozoic era (about 65 million years ago). Finally, sand soil brought by alluvium and wind was formed in the Quaternary/Holocene era, which continues even to the present. Hence the correct order is B → A → C → D.

The correct answer is option A because 'Honolulu', the capital and major port of the Hawaiian Islands (USA), is called the "Crossroads of the Pacific Ocean" due to its location at the meeting point of the sea routes of North America, Asia and Australia. Large cargo ships and passenger ships crossing the Pacific Ocean invariably stop at the Port of Honolulu for refueling, repairs, logistics supplies and technical servicing. Option B 'Hong Kong' is a major trade gateway to the South China Sea. Option C 'Vancouver' is a major Pacific coastal port of Canada. Option D 'Manila' is the capital and regional port of the Philippines. Only Honolulu is referred to by this unique geographical nickname due to its strategic location in the Central Pacific.

The correct answer is option C because only six legal rights are defined under Section 2(9) of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019, which clearly include Right to Safety/Protection and Right to be Informed. These six rights include: 1. 'Right to be protected' against goods and services which are harmful to life and property, 2. 'Right to be informed' about quality, quantity, capacity, purity, standards and price, 3. Access to goods at competitive prices ('Right to be assured'), 4. Right to be heard in appropriate forums ('Right to be heard'), 5. 'Right to seek redress' against unfair trade practices and 6. 'Right to Consumer Education'. Option A 'Right to basic needs' is in the UN Consumer Charter but is not codified in the Indian 2019 Act of Legal Rights, and B is 'Right to be heard' instead of 'Right to be consulted'. Hence only C and D are legal rights.

The correct answer is option B because after the demolition of Babri Masjid on 15 December 1992, President's rule was imposed for the fourth time by dismissing the Bhairon Singh Shekhawat government in Rajasthan, which remained effective till 3 December 1993. Since the State Assembly was dissolved during the budget session of March 1993, Parliament acquired the powers of the State Legislature under Article 356 of the Constitution and the Annual Financial Statement (State Budget) of Rajasthan for the financial year 1993–94 was presented and passed in the Lok Sabha in the Union Parliament. President's rule was imposed in Rajasthan a total of four times: 1967 (March to April, 44 days), 1977 (April to June), 1980 (February to June) and 1992–1993 (about one year). In 1993, during the budget session, the budget was tabled in the Lok Sabha due to full President's rule being in effect.

The correct answer is option D because Article 243X (Article 243B in Hindi) of the Indian Constitution inserted by the 74th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992, deals with the power of municipalities to impose taxes and their funds. There is a clear provision in Article 243 Among its other sub-sections: Under 243X(a) municipalities are authorized to levy and collect taxes, fees, tolls, etc.; Under section 243X(b) taxes collected by the State Government are assigned to the municipalities; And 243X(d) provides for the formation of special funds to deposit the money received on behalf of the municipalities. Therefore, the exact provision of grant-in-aid is in 243X(c).

The correct answer is option B because the five-judge Constitution bench of the Supreme Court had given a historic ruling in the case 'Olga Tellis vs. Bombay Municipal Corporation (1985)' that the 'Right to Livelihood' provided under Article 21 essentially includes the 'Right to Livelihood', because no person can survive without the means of livelihood. If the right to livelihood is not considered a part of the right to life, then the easiest way to deprive the right to life would be to deprive someone of his means of livelihood. Option A 'M.C. Mehta case (1987)' deals with oleum gas leakage and the doctrine of absolute liability. Option C 'S.P. The 'Gupta case (1981)' deals with the transfer of judges and expansion of Public Interest Litigation (PIL). Option D 'Hussainara Khatoon Case (1979)' is related to Speedy Trial and rights of undertrial prisoners.

The correct answer is option C because Article 139 of the Constitution provides for the power to issue certain writs to the Supreme Court, in which the Mandamus writ is mentioned verbatim. According to Article 139, "Parliament may by law empower the Supreme Court to issue directions, orders or writs, including habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, quo warranto and certiorari, for any purposes other than those mentioned in clause (2) of Article 32." Option A 'Article 137' deals with the power of the Supreme Court to review its decisions or orders. Option B 'Article 140' deals with the incidental powers of the Supreme Court. Option D 'Article 138' deals with the enlargement of the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court. Therefore, the nominal mention of writ of mandamus is clearly found in Article 139.

The correct answer is option C because only statement A is correct, while statement B is false. According to Section 9(1) of the Central Vigilance Commission Act, 2003, the proceedings of the Commission will be conducted at its headquarters (New Delhi) only, hence statement A is legally true. Statement B is incorrect because as per Section 9(5) of the Act, if the Central Vigilance Commissioner (CVC) is unable to attend any meeting of the Commission for any reason, the 'senior-most Vigilance Commissioner' present at the meeting presides over the meeting and not any Commissioner authorized by the President. The provision for appointing any such special authority of the President does not make reference to the conduct of general meetings of the Commission. Hence only statement A represents the valid provision.

The correct answer is option A because statements A and C are correct, while statement B is false. Under Article 148(2) of the Constitution, the CAG, before assuming office, takes oath before the President or a person appointed by him in the form given in the Third Schedule. According to Article 148(1), the CAG can be removed only in the same manner and on the same grounds (proven misbehavior or incapacity) as a judge of the Supreme Court. Statement B is incorrect because under Article 151(1) the CAG submits its reports on the accounts of the Union to the 'President', and the President causes those reports to be laid before each House of Parliament; The CAG itself does not table its reports directly in Parliament. Hence due to procedural rule only A and C are correct.

The correct answer is option D because during the debate on Article 43 (present Article 54) of the draft Constitution in the Constituent Assembly, eminent economist and Constituent Assembly member Prof. KT Shah had introduced this amendment that the President of India should be elected directly by secret ballot by all adult citizens of the country. Although Dr. B.R. Ambedkar and Jawaharlal Nehru opposed this proposal saying that India was adopting a parliamentary system of governance in which the President was the nominal constitutional head; Therefore, holding elections through direct adult franchise will entail huge administrative and financial expenses and the President can create a power struggle with the Council of Ministers by claiming real powers. As a result KT This amendment of Shah was rejected and the system of indirect electoral college was adopted.

The correct answer is option C because Principles A and C are not included in Part-IV of the Indian Constitution. Statement A is mentioned in Article 350A under 'Part-XVII' (Official Language) of the Constitution and not in Part-IV. Statement C is not in Part-IV because Article 46 mentions the promotion of 'educational and economic' interests of the Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes and other weaker sections by the State, the word 'political' has not been used in it at all. Statement B, on the other hand, was included verbatim in Article 45 of Part IV of the original Constitution ("The State shall endeavor to provide, within a period of ten years from the commencement of this Constitution, free and compulsory education to all children until they complete the age of fourteen years"). Hence, both A and C are not mentioned in Part-IV.

The correct answer is option B because the correct historical chronology of these states becoming full-fledged states is Nagaland (1963) → Manipur (1972) → Sikkim (1975) → Mizoram (1987). 'Nagaland' was made the 16th state of India by the 13th Constitutional Amendment Act on 1 December 1963, separated from Assam. 'Manipur' gained full statehood on 21 January 1972 under the North-Eastern Areas (Reorganization) Act, 1971. 'Sikkim' became the 22nd full-fledged state of the Indian Union on 16 May 1975 by the 36th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1975. After the 53rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1986, 'Mizoram' received the status of 23rd full state on 20 February 1987. Hence the correct chronology becomes D (1963) → A (1972) → C (1975) → B (1987).

The correct answer is option B because Section 20 of the Rajasthan Land Revenue Act, 1956 makes clear legal provision for the appointment of the Collector of the district and his being the Land Records Officer. According to Section 20(1), "The State Government shall appoint a Collector in every district who shall also be the Land Records Officer of that district and shall exercise all the powers conferred and discharge all the duties imposed on the Collector or Land Records Officer by or under this Act or any other law for the time being in force." Option A 'Section 22' relates to the appointment of Sub-Divisional Officer (SDO). Option C 'Section 19' provides for the appointment of Divisional Commissioner. Option D 'Section 21' relates to the appointment of Additional Collector. Hence the correct section is 20.

The correct answer is option B because both statements B and C are factually incorrect. Statement B is incorrect because Bicameral Legislature was established only in the 'Centre' by the Act of 1919 (Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms), bicameralism in the provinces was introduced by the Act of 1935; Dyarchy was in force in the provinces in 1919. Statement C is incorrect because members of the provincial legislature did not have the exclusive power to reject the budget altogether; The Governor had the prerogative that if the Legislature rejected any demand, he could restore it by declaring it mandatory by his certification. Statement A is completely correct because the 8-member executive of the Governor-General included 3 Indian members except the Commander-in-Chief. Hence the wrong statements are only B and C.

The correct answer is option B because only statement A is correct while statement B is false. There is a clear provision in Section 15 of the Child Marriage Prohibition Act, 2006 that under the Code of Criminal Procedure, all the crimes punishable under this Act will be cognizable and non-bailable, due to which the police can arrest without warrant. Statement B is incorrect because under Section 9 of the Act, if an adult male above 18 years of age marries a girl child, he can be punished with rigorous imprisonment up to a maximum of 2 years or a fine up to Rs 1 lakh (or both), not Rs 4 lakh. The legal limit of fine is fixed at Rs 1 lakh. Hence, only statement A is true since the amount of financial penalty is wrong.

The correct answer is option D because both statements A and B are completely true. Rajasthan Government's 'MAA - Maternity & Child Care Assistance' Voucher Scheme' has been started with the aim of providing free sonography services to pregnant women during pregnancy, under which government hospitals as well as authorized private sonography centers have been listed so that women can get free from queues and get easy testing. Statement B is also correct because 'Kalika Patrolling Unit' consisting of special women police personnel has been formed by the Rajasthan Police and the State Government to ensure the safety of girls, students and working women in public places, schools, colleges and coaching areas and to prevent molestation and indecency. Hence both the statements are real steps towards women empowerment.

The correct answer is option A because the provision for binding decisions of the Commission under the RTI Act, 2005 is made in Section 19(7) and not in Section 19(9). Section 19(7) clearly states that "the decision of the Central Information Commission or the State Information Commission shall be binding", whereas Section 19(9) only deals with giving information of the decision and notice of the right of appeal to the complainant and the public authority. Option B is correct because the 2007 Regulations were made for the functioning of the Commission and disposal of judicial appeals. Option C is correct because the official motto of the Commission is 'Avidani Janebhya' (Information/Knowledge for the Public). Option D is correct because the first Chief Information Commissioner of the state was M.D. Kourani, second T. Srinivasan and third Suresh Chaudhary (IPS). Hence, option A is an incorrect statement due to inaccuracy of the statutory section.

The correct answer is option A because statements A, B and D are true, while statement C is false. According to the Economic Survey 2025-26, India is firmly established at 7th position in services exports in the world. India's share in global commercial services trade has more than doubled from 2.0% in 2005 to 4.3% by 2024 and according to World Bank data, the contribution of the services sector to Indian GDP has been about 49.9%. Statement C is incorrect because the services sector (financial, banking, insurance, IT and outsourcing etc.) is the 'top recipient' of total cumulative foreign direct investment (FDI) inflows into India, and not the second. The services sector continues to lead the share of total FDI inflows into India at over 16%. Hence only A, B and D are correct.

The correct answer is option D because only statement B is correct, while both A and C are false. According to official data of the Economic Survey, due to the National Oilseeds Mission and price support policies, the total oilseed production in India is expected to increase from 27.5 million tonnes in 2014-15 to about 42.6 million tonnes in 2024-25, showing a historical growth of about 55%. Statement A is incorrect because horticulture production in India has consistently been higher than foodgrain production for the last decade (horticulture production is estimated at about 355 million tonnes in 2024-25 while foodgrain production is about 332 million tonnes). Statement C is also wrong because India ranks 'second' in the world in fruit, vegetable and potato production (first place goes to China), only in some specific crops like banana, mango and papaya, India is first. Hence only statement B is true.

The correct answer is option A because statements A and B are correct, while statement C is false. According to the Economic Survey 2025-26, India's total exports (merchandise and services combined) reached a record $825.3 billion in the financial year 2024-25 (FY25), with double-digit growth of software, ITES and business services exports acting as a key driver. Statement B is also correct because the share of agricultural products in India's total merchandise exports remained stable in the range of 11% to 14% during 2020 to 2025. Statement C is incorrect because according to World Trade Organization (WTO) and survey, India's share in global agricultural exports has increased from 1.1% in 2000 to about 2.4% in 2024, not 3.4%. Hence the correct statements are A and B only.

The correct answer is option C because only statement B is correct, while both A and C are false. Under the Rajasthan Social Security Pension Rules, special honor pension of Rs 2,500 per month is provided to the specially-abled people who have been cured of leprosy on humanitarian grounds, hence B is completely true. Statement A is incorrect because there is not a uniform pension of Rs 1500 for all age groups from birth under the scheme; There are age based categories (below 55 years, 55 to 75 years and above 75 years) and the minimum rate under Minimum Pension Guarantee is Rs 1,150 which increases by 15% every year. Statement C is incorrect because under the special silicosis policy of Rajasthan, after certification, the victims do not get a separate monthly pension of Rs 2000 under the Vishesh Yogjan Pension Scheme, but a pension of Rs 1500 and a lump sum rehabilitation package of Rs 3 lakh by the Silicosis Welfare Board. Hence only B is correct.

The correct answer is option C because sequences A and C give the correct economic explanation of the inflation control mechanism, while sequence B is theoretically incorrect. Sequence A is correct because when the Central Bank (RBI) increases the reverse repo rate, commercial banks deposit their surplus funds with the RBI in greed to get higher interest, which reduces liquidity (money supply) in the market and controls inflation by decreasing demand. Sequence C is correct because increasing the repo rate makes it expensive for banks to borrow money, which increases interest rates, reduces private investment and consumption, and reduces inflation. Sequence B is wrong because Money Multiplier = 1/CRR; Therefore, on increasing the cash reserve ratio (CRR), the money multiplier 'decreases', not increases. Hence only A and C are correct sequences.

The correct answer is option A because both statements A and B are true as per global institutional data. The World Bank has revised the International Poverty Line in June 2025 from $2.15 per day in 2017 PPP to $3.00 per day based on 2021 purchasing power parity (PPP), reflecting the new base for national poverty lines for low-income countries. Statement B is also completely correct because according to the 'Poverty and Equity Brief' released by the World Bank and NITI Aayog, under the revised extreme poverty line of $3.00 per day, extreme poverty in India has declined sharply from 27.1% in 2011-12 to just 5.3% in 2022-23, while at the lower-middle income line of $4.20, poverty has reduced from 57.7%. It has come down to 23.9%. Hence both the facts are officially correct.

The correct answer is option D because all three statements A, B and C related to Mukhyamantri Amrit Aahar Yojana are completely correct. This ambitious nutrition scheme was formally launched by the Women and Child Development Department of the Government of Rajasthan on 14 December 2024 at all the Anganwadi centers of the state. The main objective of the scheme is to prevent malnutrition, stunting and anemia in small children aged 3 to 6 years and to increase their attendance in Anganwadi. Under this, high quality fortified skimmed milk powder is provided by Rajasthan Cooperative Dairy Federation (RCDF - SARAS), from which 100 ml of fresh, hot and sweet milk is prepared and fed to each registered child per day by Anganwadi workers. Hence all the statements are in accordance with the actual outline of the scheme.

The correct answer is option D because all three statements A, B and C are correct regarding Mukhyamantri Yuva Swarozgar Yojana. This scheme provides interest-free loans up to Rs 10 lakh (including 100 per cent interest subsidy) through banks to the educated and skilled unemployed youth of the state to set up their own enterprises in the manufacturing, service and trade sectors. Under the eligibility conditions of the scheme, the applicant should be a native of Rajasthan and his age should be between minimum 18 years and maximum 35 years. The nodal administrative department of this scheme is the 'Department of Industries and Commerce' of the Government of Rajasthan, which monitors the scrutiny of applications, approval and disbursement of loans through District Industries and Commerce Centers (DIC). Therefore, all three provisions are completely in accordance with the guidelines of the scheme.

The correct answer is option A because both statements A and B are true as per established principles of economics. According to the Value Added Method in national income accounting, the sum of Gross Value Added (GVA) done by all productive enterprises (firms) in a financial year within the domestic limits of a country is called Gross Domestic Product (GDP) (i.e. GDP = Σ GVA + Product Tax - Product Subsidy). Statement B is also true because the Expenditure Method estimates final consumption expenditure, government expenditure, gross domestic capital formation (investment) and net exports (C + I + G + X – M), which reflect the aggregate final demand for goods and services produced in the economy. Therefore, both the statements present the correct concept of national income measurement.

The correct answer is option C because in the given structure of options only B is considered the correct answer because statement A is factually incorrect. PM Street Vendors Self-reliant Fund (PM SVANidhi) Scheme was launched by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs on 1 June 2020 to restore the livelihood of street vendors affected by the COVID-19 lockdown. Options A, B and D are automatically rejected since statement A is wrong. Statement B is completely correct as the scheme provides working capital loans up to Rs 10,000 (1st instalment), Rs 20,000 (2nd instalment) and Rs 50,000 (3rd instalment) with 7% interest subvention to street vendors without any guarantee (collateral-free). Cashback facility has also been provided to promote digital transactions. Hence only statement B is correct.

The correct answer is option A because Tamil Nadu has stood first in the entire country in terms of providing total employment in the registered manufacturing sector of India as per the Annual Survey of Industries 2023-24 released by the Ministry of Statistics and Program Implementation (MoSPI). Tamil Nadu accounts for about 15 to 16 percent of the total factory employment in the country, with textiles, leather, automobile, electric vehicle and electronics hardware manufacturing industries being the major employment providers. Gujarat is at second place and Maharashtra is at third place. Although Gujarat tops the list in Gross Industrial Production and Value Added (GVA), Tamil Nadu is the undisputed leader in the country in terms of total employment and female industrial workforce participation.

The correct answer is option D because only statement A is true, while B is false. Rajasthan Small Industries Corporation Limited (RAJSICO) is successfully running 'Rajasthali' emporium in Jaipur, Udaipur, New Delhi and Kolkata to provide market to the authentic handicraft products of rural and traditional artisans of the state, blue pottery, terracotta, lac bangles and Bandhej textiles. Statement B is incorrect because Rajasthan Pavilion was awarded the 'Gold Medal' and not the Silver Medal for its excellent performance and captivating cultural presentation at the India International Trade Fair (IITF) held at Pragati Maidan, New Delhi. Hence, B is false and only A is true due to wrong category of medal.

The correct answer is option B because only statement B is correct. Targeted Public Distribution System (TPDS) is a joint arrangement of the Center and States which is the primary mechanism to provide wheat, rice and coarse grains at highly subsidized/free rates to more than 80 crore poor and eligible families of the country through fair price shops (ration shops). Statement A is incorrect because while the National Food Security Act (NFSA), 2013 aims to ensure 'access and nutritional security' to quality food at affordable prices to people in a human life cycle approach, increasing production of grains is not its mandate (production is the subject of agricultural schemes such as NFSM). Statement C is incorrect because TPDS is a joint responsibility of the Center and the states; The central government procures, allocates and transports food grains to the depots of the Food Corporation of India (FCI), while the state governments undertake identification of eligible persons, issuance of ration cards and distribution of ration. Therefore, no one person has the entire responsibility.

The correct answer is option C because the prescribed Panch Gaurav combination of Bharatpur district is completely correct. Under the Panch Gaurav Program 2025-26 of the Rajasthan Government, five major components (special produce, vegetable species, major products, historical/tourist places and local sports) have been decided to promote the local identity of each district. For Bharatpur district: Produce – Mustard, Vegetable species – Kadamba tree, Local product – Agro based products (Mustard oil etc.), Tourist place – Keoladeo National Bird Park, and Sports – Kabaddi have been selected. Option A is incorrect because the botanical species of Balotra is Rohira and not Khejri. Option D is incorrect because the botanical species of Dausa is Dhak (Palash) and not Neem. Option B is also incorrect in its combination of sports and vegetation. Hence the correct combination is Bharatpur only.

The correct answer is option A because only statement A is correct, while statement B is false. Expenditure in the government budget is classified into revenue expenditure and capital expenditure. Revenue Expenditure is that expenditure which neither creates any physical or financial asset of the government nor reduces any financial liability; Such as salaries of employees, administrative expenses, interest on loans and pension payments. Hence pension is part of revenue expenditure. Statement B is incorrect because expenditure on subsidies is also part of the day-to-day welfare responsibilities of the government and does not create any permanent capital assets; Therefore, subsidies are essentially part of 'revenue expenditure' and not capital expenditure. Capital expenditure includes only construction of bridges, roads, machinery or debt repayment.

The correct answer is option B because statement A is completely true while statement B is scientifically false. The human tongue is a highly dynamic and complex group of voluntary skeletal muscles, consisting of four intrinsic muscles (which change the shape of the tongue) and four extrinsic muscles (which attach it to the hyoid bone and jaw). All these muscles are made of skeletal muscle tissue. Statement B is incorrect because human teeth are not bones; Teeth are specialized calcified tissue derived from ectoderm and mesoderm. The structure of teeth consists of enamel (the hardest non-cellular covering in the body), dentin (the main part), cementum and the central pulp cavity. Bones contain collagen, osteocytes and bone marrow which produces blood cells, whereas teeth do not. Therefore, teeth do not come under the category of bones.

The correct answer is option D because statements A and B are true, while statement C is false. Passive components in electronic circuits are those that do not require any external power supply to function and that only absorb, dissipate, or store energy in the form of electric/magnetic fields in the circuit; Like resistor, capacitor and inductor. Active components are components that can amplify an electrical signal and have the ability to control the flow of current; Such as diode, bipolar transistor (BJT) and integrated circuit (IC). Statement C is incorrect because according to the universal law of conservation of energy, no active component can generate energy on its own without any external electrical energy source (DC Power Supply/Biasing); They simply control or amplify energy received from an external source. Hence only A and B are correct.

The correct answer is option A because all three statements A, B and C are completely true as per Chemistry and NCERT (Class 12, Chemistry in Daily Life). Synthetic detergents are called 'Soapless Soaps' because they have all the cleaning properties of soap but do not contain sodium salts of fatty acids and lather without forming scum even in hard water. Cationic detergents are quaternary ammonium salts (such as cetyltrimethylammonium bromide) which have strong germicidal properties, and are extremely expensive due to the complexity of their manufacture. Statement C is also true because if the hydrocarbon chain of the detergent is highly branched, then microorganisms are not able to biodegrade it easily, due to which they cause serious environmental problems of long-term pollution and foaming in rivers and water bodies.

The correct answer is option C because yellow and orange fruits like mango, apricot and papaya are extremely rich natural sources of pro-vitamin A i.e. 'Beta-Carotene'. After ingestion into the human body, beta-carotene is converted into active 'vitamin A' (retinol) in the liver and intestines. Vitamin A is essential for normal eye vision (formation of rhodopsin pigment), prevention of night blindness, integrity of skin epithelial cells, and maintaining immunity. Although vitamin C is also present in papaya and mango, the combined group of mango, apricot and papaya is considered a particularly prominent source of plant-based carotenoids and vitamin A. Option A 'Vitamin E' is abundant in almonds and vegetable oils and option B 'Vitamin K' is abundant in green leafy vegetables. Hence the correct option is C.

The correct answer is option B because a dedicated breeding and research center for artificial insemination and conservation of 'Kharmor' (Lesser Florican - Cyphyotidis indicus) has been established by the Rajasthan Forest Department in Arwar Conservation Reserve in Ajmer district. Kharmor is a critically endangered small migratory bird of the bustard family which comes to the grasslands of Malwa and Rajasthan (Sonalia, Nasirabad and Shokalia areas) during monsoon for breeding. Option C: The main artificial breeding center of 'Godavan' (Great Indian Bustard) is established at Sam and Ramdevra in Jaisalmer district. Option D 'Tilor' (Houbara) is a winter migratory bird. Keoladeo Ghana Bird Sanctuary is the natural breeding ground for sarus cranes. Therefore, a breeding center is working in Arvad (Ajmer) especially for the conservation of Kharmor.

The correct answer is option A because the correct matching of all these laboratories is A-ii, B-iii, C-i, D-iv. Advanced Center for Energetic Materials (ACEM) is located in Nashik (Maharashtra) which works on missile propellant and explosive technologies. Center for Artificial Intelligence and Robotics (CAIR) located in Bengaluru (Karnataka) is a leading laboratory in the field of Defense Informatics, AI and Robotics. Defense Materials and Stores Research and Development Establishment (DMSRDE) is located in Kanpur (Uttar Pradesh) which develops advanced polymers, defense textiles and armored materials. DRDO Young Scientist Laboratory – Quantum Technologies (DYSL-QT) located in Pune (Maharashtra) focuses on quantum communications, sensing and computing. Hence the correct code is A-ii, B-iii, C-i, D-iv.

The correct answer is option A because the correct match of the botanical species of Ajmer, Barmer, Baran and Chittorgarh districts under the Panch Gaurav Program 2025-26 notified by the Government of Rajasthan is A-ii, B-i, C-iii, D-iv. On the basis of local ecology and traditional importance of Ajmer district, its botanical species has been determined as 'Neem' (Azadirachta indica). The state flower 'Rohira' (Tecomella undulata) has been given the status of botanical pride for Barmer district. 'Chironji' (Buchanania lanzan) has been selected for its uniqueness in the dense Hadoti forests of Baran district. 'Bilva Patra' (Aegle marmelos) has been selected reflecting the historical and religious environment of Chittorgarh district. Hence, the correct matching option is A.

The correct answer is option D because researchers at the Institute of Advanced Study in Science and Technology (IASST), Guwahati, an autonomous institute under the Department of Science and Technology, Government of India, have used the two-dimensional (2D) allotrope of boron 'Borophene' as a nano-additive to radically enhance the anti-friction and heat-tolerant capacity of biodegradable castor oil. Have done. According to the study, by adding only 0.1 weight percent (wt%) borophene to castor oil, the friction coefficient reduced by more than 40% and wear became minimal. Borophene's exceptional mechanical strength, high thermal conductivity and planar structure form a protective tribofilm between sliding surfaces under heavy pressure. Therefore, a successful 2D material as a lubricant additive is borophene.

The correct answer is option C because the full and official name of Harit-Sankalp is "System for Afforestation, Nursery Knowledge & Linkage Platform". This state-of-the-art digital and GIS-based portal has been developed by the Forest Department for real-time tracking of plantation drives, transparent management of sapling availability in government and private nurseries across the state and direct linking of common citizens and farmers with plantation schemes. Through this, geo-tagging of planted plants, satellite based monitoring of survival rate and scientific coordination of demand and supply of plants is ensured. Therefore, the extension given in option C is its completely correct and official name.

The correct answer is option A because Multilayer Perceptron (MLP) is the most fundamental and widely used feedforward architecture of Artificial Neural Network (ANN) in deep learning and machine learning. A multilayer perceptron consists of at least three layers: an input layer, one or more hidden layers, and an output layer. Each node except the input nodes is an artificial neuron that uses a non-linear activation function (such as ReLU, Sigmoid or Tanh). It accurately solves complex nonlinear problems and classification through backpropagation supervised learning algorithms. Hence MLP is directly related to neural networks.

The correct answer is option D because statement A is completely true while statement B is false. Universal Data Collection Application (UDCA), developed by ISRO's Space Applications Center (SAC), Ahmedabad, is a multifunctional mobile app that enables users to collect geospatial and environmental data from the field, and have this data stored securely in real-time directly on ISRO's 'VEDAS' (Visualisation of Earth observation Data and Archival System) servers. Statement B is incorrect because 'Nabhmitra' device is a 'two-way' satellite communication device developed by ISRO for the safety of deep sea fishermen; It not only receives cyclone and weather warnings from the shore, but fishermen can also send emergency messages to the control room by pressing its SOS button in case of distress in the boat. Hence, B is wrong because it is written one-sided.

The correct answer is option D because two historic cities of India - Indore (Madhya Pradesh) and Udaipur (Rajasthan) have received the prestigious global recognition as India's first 'Ramsar Wetland City' (Wetland City Accreditation - WCA) under the International Ramsar Convention. Udaipur has been accepted in this category for its rich cultural and ecological system of lakes (Pichola, Fatehsagar, Udaysagar etc.) and Indore for its excellent conservation of historical wetland areas like Sirpur and Yashwant Sagar and coordination with urban development. Nominations of these cities from India were submitted by the Union Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change and the Ramsar Secretariat included them in its official list. Hence the correct number is two (2).

The correct answer is option D because this commercial contract is between 'National Science India Limited' and 'A.S.E. Not between 'Mobile', but between ISRO's commercial arm 'NewSpace India Limited' (NSIL) and American company 'A.S.T. SpaceMobile' (AST SpaceMobile Inc.). All remaining mission statements are technically correct: the Blue-Bird Block-2 satellite is the world's largest commercial communications antenna array to deliver 4G/5G cellular broadband connectivity directly to ordinary smartphones; It was a dedicated heavy commercial mission of NSIL and was successfully placed in the target Geosynchronous Transfer Orbit (GTO) by India's most powerful rocket LVM3. Hence, option D is a false statement due to the distorted name of the companies.

The correct answer is option D because as per the official action plan and budget provisions released by the Department of Science and Technology (DST), Government of Rajasthan, approval has been given to set up state-of-the-art 'Space Gallery' and Children's Gallery at two major centers of the state - State Remote Sensing Application Center (SRSAC), Jodhpur and Regional Science Center and Science Park (Shastri Nagar), Jaipur. The project aims to provide school and college students with hands-on experience of the Indian space program (ISRO's Chandrayaan, Gaganyaan and Aditya missions), satellite remote sensing, astrophysics and rocketry through practical models and interactive simulators. Necessary tenders and financial approvals for this have been issued by the department for SRSAC Jodhpur and Science Park Jaipur only.

The correct answer is option D because according to Pascal's Law, pressure applied on a confined incompressible fluid is transmitted equally in all directions (P1 = P2). Hence F1 / A1 = F2 / A2, giving F2 = F1 × (A2 / A1). The area of ​​a circular piston is A = π(d/2)², so the ratio of the areas will be equal to the ratio of the squares of the diameters: A2 / A1 = (d2 / d1)². Here small diameter d1 = 1.0 cm, large diameter d2 = 3.0 cm, and small force F1 = 10 N. Putting the values: F2 = 10 × (3.0 / 1.0)² = 10 × (3)² = 10 × 9 = 90 Newtons (N). Therefore, due to the mechanical advantage of the hydraulic system (Mechanical Advantage = 9), an upward force of exactly 90 N will be applied on the larger piston.

The correct answer is option B because only conclusion (I) follows logically. According to the rules of Venn Diagram, 'All houses are books' (Houses ⊆ Books) and 'All books are boats' (Books ⊆ Boats). Since the entire set of houses is contained within books and the entire set of books is contained within boats, the entire set of houses will necessarily lie inside boats (houses ⊆ boats); Hence conclusion (I) 'All houses are boats' is 100% true and valid. Conversely conclusion (II) 'All boats are books' is not logically mandatory, because the outer circle (boats) cannot be a subset of the inner circle (books); Only 'Some boats are books' can be true. Hence, only conclusion (I) is definitely correct.

The correct answer is option C because in both the matches combined, player A played the most balls (65 balls) and player D played the least balls (30 balls). Total balls in each match are 120. In Match I (% of 120): A = 24, B = 18, C = 30, D = 12, E = 36 balls. There are total 360° = 120 balls in Match II, so 1 ball = 3° (balls = degrees/3): A = 123/3 = 41 balls; B = 51/3 = 17 balls; C = 60/3 = 20 balls; D = 54/3 = 18 balls; E = 72/3 = 24 balls. Now sum the total balls of both the matches: Player A = 24 + 41 = 65 balls (maximum); Player B = 18 + 17 = 35 balls; Player C = 30 + 20 = 50 balls; Player D = 12 + 18 = 30 balls (minimum); Player E = 36 + 24 = 60 balls. Thus, the player who plays maximum balls in both the matches is A and the player who plays minimum is D.

The correct answer is option C because on simplifying the given number, it clearly proves to be a multiple of 10. We know that 8 = 2³, so 8⁵ = (2³)⁵ = 2¹⁵. Now the expression becomes: 2¹⁵ + 2¹³. Taking out the common term 2¹³: 2¹³ × (2² + 1) = 2¹³ × (4 + 1) = 2¹³ × 5. This can be further written as: 2¹² × (2 × 5) = 2¹² × 10. Since both 2 and 5 are necessarily present in the prime factors of this expression, whose product is 10, hence this number will be completely divisible by 10. This number cannot be divisible by the other options 3, 15 or 12 because there is no factor of 3 (both 2¹³ and 5 are not divisible by 3). Hence the correct answer is 10.

The correct answer is option D as the difference in the amounts invested in both the schemes is Rs 5,000. Effective compound interest in scheme P at 10% rate for 2 years = 10 + 10 + (10×10)/100 = 21%. Effective interest in scheme Q at 20% rate for 2 years = 20 + 20 + (20×20)/100 = 44%. Let the amount invested in scheme P be x, then the investment in Q will be (25,000 – x). Total interest: 0.21x + 0.44(25,000 - x) = 7,550 => 0.21x + 11,000 - 0.44x = 7,550 => 11,000 - 0.23x = 7,550 => 0.23x = 11,000 - 7,550 = 3,450 => x = 3,450 / 0.23 = Rs 15,000. Hence, investment in scheme P = Rs 15,000 and investment in scheme Q = Rs 25,000 – 15,000 = Rs 10,000. The difference in investment of both is = Rs 15,000 – 10,000 = Rs 5,000.

The correct answer is option A as the share of each member of team C is Rs 595. Let us assume that the individual share of each member of teams A, B and C is Rs 7x, 6x and 9x respectively. Total share of Team A = 6 members × 7x = Rs 42x. Total share of Team B = 5 members × 6x = Rs 30x. Total share of Team C = 8 members × 9x = Rs 72x. Total sum of entire amount = 42x + 30x + 72x = Rs 144x. The total amount as per the question is Rs 9,520: 144x = 9,520 => x = 9,520 / 144 = 595 / 9. Now share of each member of Team C = 9x = 9 × (595 / 9) = Rs 595. Thus each member of Team C will receive exactly Rs 595.

The correct answer is option B as there are total 5 female members in this family. Logical analysis of gender of each member: 1. “A is the father of C but C is not the son” i.e. C is the daughter (female-1) and A is the father (male). 2. “E is the daughter of C” i.e. E is a female (Female-2). 3. “B is brother of C” means B is male. 4. “D and A are married”, since A is the father/man, hence D is his wife and mother (female-3). 5. “H is the daughter of B” i.e. H is a female (Female-4). 6. “H is the sister of G and G is the son of F”, since G is the son of both B and F and B is male, hence F will be the wife (female-5) of B and G will be the son (male). Hence, all female members of the family are: C, E, D, H and F. In total there are exactly 5 women.

The correct answer is option A because only player C can have the Queen of Clubs. Analysis of the Four of Clubs: Player A has the King of Clubs, Player B has the Ace of Clubs. Hence, the remaining two cards of the bird (Queen and Slave) should be held by C and D. Now look at the position of player C: According to statement (III) C already has Jack of Diamonds. Since each player can only have one card each of ace, king, queen and jack, C can never place a second jack (the bird's knave). Hence C will necessarily have 'Chidi's queen', and Chidi's slave will go to D. Hence, player C has the queen of the bird.

The correct answer is option C because in this code the sum of the place values ​​of the letters of the word and their code values ​​are 26, 25, 24 and 23 respectively. In DATE: D(4) + V(22) = 26; A(1) + X(24) = 25; T(20) + D(4) = 24; E(5) + R(18) = 23. In COME: C(3) + W(23) = 26; O(15) + J(10) = 25; M(13) + K(11) = 24; E(5) + R(18) = 23. Now applying the same rule to THIS: First letter T(20): Code = 26 - 20 = 6 i.e. F; Second letter H(8): Code = 25 - 8 = 17 i.e. Q; Third letter I(9): Code = 24 - 9 = 15 i.e. O; Fourth letter S(19): Code = 23 - 19 = 4 i.e. D. Hence, the required code of THIS will be 'FQOD'.

The correct answer is option B because only argument (II) is strong. In argument (I) extreme and narrow words like 'this is the only way' have been used; State welfare policies, old age homes, special care homes and social security schemes are also effective options to solve a problem, hence accepting it as the only solution weakens the argument. Argument (II) is practical and realistic because family care largely depends on human sensitivities, emotional attachment, psychological understanding and economic capacity; Merely enforcing it by creating punitive laws may increase the risk of neglect or abuse towards disabled members and such sensitive family issues cannot be resolved solely on the strength of the law. Hence only argument (II) is strong.

The correct answer is option A because the difference of consecutive terms in this series is moving on the pattern of (n² – 1). Difference between terms: 5 – 5 = 0; 8 – 5 = 3; 16 – 8 = 8; 31 – 16 = 15; 55 – 31 = 24. Looking at these differences (0, 3, 8, 15, 24) reveals a clear pattern: 1² – 1 = 0; 2² – 1 = 3; 3² – 1 = 8; 4² – 1 = 15; 5² – 1 = 24. So the next difference must necessarily be 6² – 1 = 36 – 1 = 35. Hence the next term of the series will be = 55 + 35 = 90. All other options do not fit this well-organized mathematical pattern. Hence the missing number is 90.

The correct answer is option D because at the 5th IBA CISO Summit & Citations 2026, Rajasthan Gramin Bank was awarded in only two categories in the Regional Rural Banks category: First Place (Winner) in the 'Identity and Access Management of the Year' category and Runner-up (Runner-up) in the 'Cyber ​​Resilience of the Year' category. Pair C is incorrect because no award named 'Cyber ​​Security Excellence of the Year' was received by Rajasthan Gramin Bank; Karnataka Gramin Bank received the Cyber ​​Security Team of the Year award among Regional Rural Banks. Hence only pair A and B are exactly matched according to the official citation list.

The correct answer is option A because on 22 July 2026, DRDO's nodal laboratory Center for Air Borne Systems (CABS) has won two major industrial contracts under the Airborne Early Warning and Control (AEW&C Mk-II) 'Netra' program for 'A.I. Engineering Services Limited' (AIESL), New Delhi and 'Adani Defense Systems & Technologies Limited' (ADSTL), Ahmedabad. Under this strategic agreement, indigenous military conversion, airframe modification, avionics integration and flight testing of Airbus A321 aircraft will be carried out with technical collaboration between these two companies. The names given in other options are fictitious or inconsistent. Hence, the right partnership was formed between Adani Defense and AIESL.

The correct answer is option B because statements (i) and (ii) are true, while statement (iii) is false. In the first Investment Favorability Index (IFI) 2026 released by NITI Aayog, Rajasthan has been given the status of 'Front-runner' category in the overall performance of the country. In the category of big states, Rajasthan secured second place in the country in the 'Regulatory Ease' column on the basis of digitalization of industrial permissions and business processes. Statement (iii) is wrong because in the investment promotion and government policy column, Rajasthan had secured '3rd rank' among the big states of the country, and not the fourth position; However, it was ranked 5th in availability of resources. Hence, being 3rd rank in government policy, statement (iii) is incorrect and only (i) and (ii) are correct.

The correct answer is option C because 'Operation Southern Readiness 26-2' held in Kochi in July 2026 was the 'First Edition' (Maiden Edition in India) of this exercise to be conducted by India on its soil, and not the second edition. The '26-2' in the codename of the operation refers to the second semi-annual cycle of the year 2026. The remaining three statements are factually correct: It was a four-day multinational maritime security training conducted at Southern Naval Command, Kochi from 20 to 23 July 2026; It was attended by representatives of more than 40 member nations of the Combined Maritime Forces (CMF) and was conducted under the auspices of Combined Task Force 154 (CTF 154). Hence, option C is false as it is said to be the second version in India.

The correct answer is option D because only statement (I) is correct while statement (II) is false. 'AAROH: Annual Report on Mine Closure', released by the Union Coal Ministry in New Delhi, is India's first official annual report on scientific mine closure, environmental restoration and recycling/repurposing of mines in the country. Statement (II) is incorrect because this report documents the success stories of eco-friendly turnaround and community rehabilitation of exactly '42' scientifically closed coal mines, not 85 (which includes 33 mines closed last year). Statement (II) is wrong since the number of mines is stated to be 85 and only statement (I) is true.

The correct answer is option A because in the ISSF Junior World Shooting Championship held in Suhl, Germany on 19 June 2026, India's talented young shooter 'Sameer' performed exceptionally well in the very thrilling final of 25 meter rapid fire pistol (men's junior) and won the gold medal with a score of 28 out of 40. India's Rohit Kanyan had won the bronze medal in the same event. India topped the medal table in this World Championship by winning a total of 25 medals (7 gold, 8 silver and 10 bronze). Hence, Sameer won the gold medal in 25 meter individual rapid fire pistol.

The correct answer is option D because both statements (I) and (II) are completely correct historically and factually. Vice President of India C.P. on 17 July 2026 at Up-Rashtrapati Bhawan in New Delhi to commemorate the centenary of Rashtriya Swayamsevak Sangh (RSS). Radhakrishnan dignifiedly released the much talked about book "RSS@100: A Century of Service, Unity & Sacrifice". The joint authors of this authentic book are renowned political analyst and social worker Shyam Jaju and senior writer Anupam Trivedi. Published by Prabhat Prakashan, this book has comprehensively documented the Sangh's 100 years of national service, disaster management, social harmony and national unity movements since its establishment in 1925. Hence both the statements are 100% correct.

The correct answer is option D because this historic Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) between the School Education Department of Rajasthan and Piramal Foundation was signed in Jaipur not on 26 July 2026, but on '16 July 2026'. The remaining three points of the agreement are in full force: Piramal Foundation will act as the Technical Support Unit (TSU) to strengthen digital education platforms in the state; This partnership will prevent drop-out of girls, monitoring of Kasturba Gandhi Balika Vidyalayas and ensure transparent digital delivery of scholarship schemes; And will integrate emerging technologies and future-oriented skills in education with the curriculum. Hence, option D is a false statement due to wrong date.

The correct answer is option D because the 'Golden Glove' award given to the best goalkeeper of the tournament was not awarded to Emiliano Martínez but to Spain's goalkeeper 'Unai Simón'. Emiliano Martínez won this award at the 2022 Qatar World Cup. According to the official awards of the 2026 World Cup announced by FIFA: The 'Golden Ball' for the best player of the tournament went to Spain's star midfielder Rodri; French striker Kylian Mbappe, who scored the most goals in the tournament, received the 'Golden Boot'; And Spain's 19-year-old defender Pau Cubarsí was awarded the 'Best Young Player' award. Therefore, the Golden Glove tally is flawed.

The correct answer is option A because statements (i) and (ii) are true, while statement (iii) is false. The 58th International Chemistry Olympiad (IChO 2026) was organized for the first time historically in Tashkent, the capital of Uzbekistan, from 10 to 19 July 2026. In this global competition, all four students of the Indian team (Kabir Chhillar, Debdutt Priyadarshi, Harsh Singhal and Sandeep Kuchi) performed brilliantly and created history by winning 'four gold medals' and India jointly topped the medal table. Statement (iii) is wrong because Kabir Chhillar (who was also a JEE Advanced topper) did not win the silver medal but won the 'gold medal' by performing brilliantly in the individual ranking. Hence only (i) and (ii) are correct statements.

The correct answer is option B because statements B and C are true, while statement A is false. As per the official schedule of the TTFI, the 22nd Commonwealth Table Tennis Championships 2026 was scheduled to be held at the 'Thyagaraj Indoor Stadium' in Delhi from 27 July to 2 August 2026, and not at the Indira Gandhi Indoor Stadium (nor from 31 July to 4 August); Hence, statement A is wrong on the basis of both venue and date. Statement B is correct because it was successfully organized jointly by the Sports Department of Delhi Government and the Table Tennis Federation of India. Statement C is also completely correct because the official mascot of this prestigious international competition, 'Mayur' inspired by India's national bird peacock, was unveiled by the Chief Minister of Delhi. Hence only B and C are true statements.

The correct answer is option A because both statements (i) and (ii) are true regarding Neelima Arora, daughter of Jaipur (Rajasthan). Neelima Arora hoisted the tricolor on the world's highest peak Mount Everest (8848.86 m) on 25 May/June 2026, despite suffering from a blood-related congenital disease like Thalassemia Minor and suffering from High-Altitude Pulmonary Edema (HAPE) thrice during the expedition and became the world's first woman mountaineer suffering from Thalassemia Minor. Apart from this, in the year 2025, she had conquered the extremely inaccessible and technically most difficult peak of Nepal, Ama Dablam (6812 meters) and she became the first Indian woman to achieve this feat at the age of more than 40. Therefore, both the statements related to his courage and achievements are true.

The correct answer is option A because the Indian national team was led by Rajasthan's talented player 'Komal Shekhawat' in the International Korfball Federation (IKF) Under-19 Asia Korfball-4 Championship held from 26 to 31 July 2026 in Bangkok, Thailand. Korfball is a uniquely gender-equality based sport in which male and female players play together on the same team. Under the excellent tactical leadership and aggressive play of Komal Shekhawat, the Indian junior team performed brilliantly and won a medal in this Asian Championship. His international leadership was widely appreciated by the Rajasthan Korfball Association and the national federation. Hence, the captain of the Indian team was Komal Shekhawat.

The correct answer is option D because on 7 July 2026, NATO Summit Defense Industry Forum (NSDIF26) was held in Ankara, the capital of Turkey. This forum was a key part of the 36th NATO Heads of State and Government Summit, which was inaugurated in the presence of the Turkish Defense Industry Secretariat and the NATO Secretary General. The historic defense forum also announced trans-Atlantic defense production, ammunition supply chain strengthening, joint production of air and missile defense systems and new defense procurement agreements worth more than $50 billion between NATO defense companies. Therefore, its official venue was Ankara (Turkey).

The correct answer is option D because statements (ii) and (iii) are correct, while statement (i) is false. Scientists of Agricultural Research Station (ARS), Fatehpur-Shekhawati (Shri Karna Narendra Agricultural University, Jobner) in collaboration with ICAR-Central Soil Salinity Research Institute (CSSRI), Karnal have developed a new improved variety of Mustard (Indian Mustard - Brassica juncea) 'CS-68'. Therefore, writing 'maize' in statement (i) is completely wrong because it is a variety of mustard. Statement (ii) is correct because it has been jointly developed by CSSRI Karnal and ARS Fatehpur. Statement (iii) is also correct because it is a high salinity-tolerant variety, which has been recommended and released at the national level for giving bumper yields in irrigated areas of the country with saline soils, saline groundwater and high temperatures, including Rajasthan, Haryana and Punjab. Hence only (ii) and (iii) are true.